Quizzes 0% 172 Created on April 08, 2023 Welding Quiz - 1 Welding Quiz - 1 1 / 10 When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which group of welders are most likely to require continuous monitoring: Concrete shuttering welding teams Pipe welding teams Plate welders Plant maintenance welders 2 / 10 You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its: Colour Length Trade Name BS639/AWS code letter 3 / 10 When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention. What would you investigate? Electrode type Power plant type Electrode stroage Day temperature 4 / 10 Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of: Scattered porosity Worm hole porosity Parent metal cracking Lack of penetration 5 / 10 One of the following alloys is non-magnetic. which one? 4.0% chromium molybdenum 12.0% chromium Austentic stainless steel 9.0% nickel steel 6 / 10 When 'hydrogen control' is specified for a maual metal arc welding project the electrode would normally be: Cellulose Iron Oxide Acid Basic 7 / 10 When TIG welding austentic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for: Prevent oxidation Prevent underbead cracking Prevent porosity Control the penetration bead shape 8 / 10 In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the: Leg Length Throat thickness Weld width Actual throat thickness 9 / 10 You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You would object because: It is too expensive The wire would be too thick The metal composition may be wrong The wire is too short 10 / 10 The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6% manganese, to 0.2% carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of: Porosity Cracking in the weld area Undercut for fillet welds Lack of fusion defects Your score isThe average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 313 Created on September 28, 2022 Radiography Quiz - 2 QUIZ-2 1 / 10 Isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number electron number none of the above 2 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 3 / 10 The half life of a radioactive source is one half of the total life of the source the period in which the energy of the source becomes half the period in which the activity of the source becomes half none of the above 4 / 10 The unit of activity is sievert Becquerel Gray none of the above 5 / 10 The atomic number of an element is the number of electrons in the atom the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom the total number of proton and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom the number of neutrons in an atom 6 / 10 Depleted uranium is used in some radiography cameras because it is a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 7 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called pair production ionization biological damage none of the above 8 / 10 The energy of gamma rays from iridium 192 is equal to cesium 137 gamma energy greater than cobalt 60 gamma ray less than cobalt 60 gamma energy none of the above 9 / 10 The project area of the target of an X ray tube is called focal spot focus effective focal spot Geometric unsharpness 10 / 10 Co-59 becomes Co-60 , when it is placed in a nuclear reactor , where it captures electrons protons neutrons Atoms Your score isThe average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 265 Created on September 14, 2022 Radiography Quiz QUIZ-1 1 / 10 A radioisotope which undergoes 3.7 x 1012 disintegration per second will have an activity of 3.7 Ci 100 Ci 10milli Ci 370 Ci 2 / 10 1 Curie is equivalent of 001 milli Ci 1000 milli Ci 100 Mega Ci .000001 micro Ci 3 / 10 a radioisotope and stable isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number chemical property none of the above 4 / 10 to radiograph a 175 mm thick steel plate , which of the following gamma ray sources would be used. cobalt-60 thulium – 170 Iridium -192 cesium – 137 5 / 10 the emission of alpha radiation from a radioisotope leads to a daughter product with change in mass number change in atomic number change in atomic and mass number none of the above 6 / 10 the energy of gamma and x ray is expressed by which of the following units of measurement curie roentgen half life kilo electron volt or million electron volt 7 / 10 The concentration of the radioactive material in a gamma source is referred to as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 8 / 10 radioactivity of 1 Bq corresponds to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second 1 x 1010 disintegrations per second 3.7 x 1004 disintegrations per second none of the above 9 / 10 The radiation quality of a gamma ray source is Determined by the size of the focal spot Determined by the curie of the source Determined by the type of isotope involved Can be verified by the operator 10 / 10 the curies per gram for a gamma ray source is called as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source Your score isThe average score is 52% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 2131 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 How is the size of a liquid penetrant indication usually related to the discontinuity itrepresents: Smaller than Larger than Not related to Equal to 2 / 10 Liquid penetrant testing is based on the principle of: Polarized sound waves in a liquid Capillary action Magnetic domains Absorption of X rays 3 / 10 Penetrant testing is limited by its inability to test which of the following materials: Aluminium Moulded rubber Porous materials Ceramics 4 / 10 The penetrant process best suited to use on parts with rough surfaces is: Magnetic particle Post emulsifiable Water washable Solvent removable 5 / 10 The act of determining the cause of an indication is called Determination Evaluation Inspection Interpretation 6 / 10 Penetrants may be applied to the surface of part by : Dipping All of the above methods are acceptable Pouring Spraying 7 / 10 Which penetrant process is best suited to detect shallow discontinuities? Water washable Fluorescent Solvent removable Post emulsifiable 8 / 10 Correct developer coating thickness is indicated by: A fine, misting spray A slightly pinkish background A thin, translucent layer An even, snowy white appearance 9 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A solvent spray A water spray A hydrophilic scrubber 10 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Development time Soaking time Fixing time Dwell time Your score isThe average score is 64% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 1225 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 What is the likely result of incomplete removal of all excess penetrant from the test piece surface? Exaggeration of the size of relevant indications Formation of relevant indications Formation of false indications None of the above 2 / 10 What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a mercury Vapour arc black light? None 2 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 3 / 10 Visible, solvent removable penetrants are most advantageous for: Inspecting parts with porous surfaces Inspecting batches of small parts Inspecting parts at remote locations Inspecting parts with rough surfaces 4 / 10 What type of solvent removers may be used with a solvent removable penetrant? Only chlorinated hydrocarbons Any organic solvent Any alcohol based solvents Only the cleaner recommended by the manufacturer of the penetrant 5 / 10 For adequate test results, the black light used in fluorescent penetrant examination should provide what minimum black light intensity at the test surface? 1000 microwatts per square centimetre 800 foot candles 35 microwatts per square centimeter 100 foot candles per square centimetre 6 / 10 Which of the following types of pre-cleaning processes may be used for liquid penetrant testing? Any process that leaves the part clean and dry, does not harm the part and is compatible with the penetrant materials Vapour degreasing only Detergent and water only Wire brushing only 7 / 10 Which of the following is a prerequisite for a penetrant test? The test object must be non-magnetic Developer must be applied in a thin, even coat Any surface coatings or soils must be completely removed All traces of penetrant materials should be removed after testing is complete 8 / 10 A hydrometer is used to measure: Cleaner specific gravity Specific gravity of water based wet developers Penetrant specific gravity Penetrant viscosity 9 / 10 What is the preferred pre-cleaning process for removal of oil and grease : Steam cleaning with a added acid Steam cleaning Ultrasonic cleaning Vapour degreasing 10 / 10 Which of the following penetrants contains an emulsifying agent? Water washable Fluorescent Post emulsifiable Solvent removable Your score isThe average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 964 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-3 1 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer? Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Accentuates presence of discontinuities by causing a penetrant indication to spread out over a larger area All of the above Provides capillary paths to aid the bleed out process 2 / 10 Which of the following developers is applied before the drying operation? Non-aqueous wet Water based wet Dry None of the above 3 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer Making the penetrant water washable Penetrating into discontinuities open to the surface Dissolve organic soils on the test piece surface Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications 4 / 10 Water based wet developer is applied: Immediately before removal of excess penetrant After a drying period following removal of excess penetrant For maximum sensitivity results Immediately after removal of excess penetrant 5 / 10 Excess penetrant removal is a two step process with which of the following penetrant methods? Solvent removable Liquid oxygen applications Post emulsifiable Water washable 6 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Development time Fixing time Dwell time Soaking time 7 / 10 A developer aids penetrant bleed out because of: Capillary action Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Proper emulsifier action Adequate removal of the excess penetrant 8 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: A water spray A hydrophilic scrubber Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A solvent spray 9 / 10 The most sensitive type of developer for the detection of fine discontinuities is: Non-aqueous wet Water soluble Dry Water Suspendable 10 / 10 Which of the following is the most sensitive developer in descending order? Non-aqueous wet, dry, water soluble Dry, water soluble, water suspendable Non-aqueous wet, water soluble, water suspendable ,dry Water suspendable, water soluble, non-aqueous wet Your score isThe average score is 69% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 959 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 The permeability of a material describes the : Ability to retain the magnetic field Length of time required to demagnetize it Ease with which it can be magnetized Depth of magnetic field in the part 2 / 10 Magnetic particle is a nondestructive examination method used for : Locating surface discontinuities Locating near surface discontinuities Detecting material separation Both a and b 3 / 10 Ferromagnetic material is : Not capable of being magnetized Strongly attracted by a magnet Capable of being magnetized Both a and b 4 / 10 Why are magnetic particles available in different colors ? Both a and b Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values. For color contrast with the part surface To enhance the detection of indications 5 / 10 The retentivity of a material describes the : Depth of magnetic field in the part Ease with which it can be magnetized Ability to retain the magnetic field Length of time required to demagnetize it 6 / 10 Which of the following can be magnetized ? All of the above Iron Cobalt Nickel 7 / 10 The magnetic field is strongest when the : Magnetizing current is not flowing Magnetizing current is flowing Materials exhibits high coercive forces Magnetizing voltage is flowing 8 / 10 Which statement is true when related to magnetic lines of force ? They are most dense at the poles of a magnet All of the above They never cross They seek the path of least resistance 9 / 10 The unit usually used to denote flux density is the : Gauss Ampere Farad Henry 10 / 10 If a crack exists in a circular magnet , the attraction of magnetic particles to the crack is caused by : Leakage field Coercive force High reluctance at the crack Doppler effect Your score isThe average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 764 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 A circular filed may be induced into a specimen by : Direct induction (head shot) All of the above Central conductor Direct induction (prods) 2 / 10 Magnetic lines of force : Overlay in highly ferromagnetic materials Form a closed loop Travel in straight lines Are randomly oriented 3 / 10 In longitudinal magnetization the proper term for calculating magnetizing force is : Ohms Ampere turns Watts Amperes 4 / 10 A part is adaptable to magnetic particle inspection if : It is attached to an electro static field The materials is an electric conductor The material is ferromagnetic The material is non ferrous 5 / 10 What rule describes the direction of current flow when lines of magnetic force surround a conductor? The left hand thump rule The right hand thumb rule The flux rule The reluctance rule 6 / 10 A coil around the part produces : Either a or b depending on the type of current applied A longitudinal field A circular field An intermittent field 7 / 10 The magnitude of the residual magnetic field in a specimen is dependent on the : Left hand rule Strength of the applied magnetic force Right hand rule L/D ratio 8 / 10 Magnetic flux lines which are parallel to a discontinuity produce : No indications Fuzzy indications Strong indications Weak indications 9 / 10 An electrical yoke produces : Alternating fields A swinging filed A circular field A longitudinal field 10 / 10 The proper number of ampere turns for a given test specimen is determined by : Its diameter Its length The material Both a and b Your score isThe average score is 67% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
