Quizzes 0% 171 Created on April 08, 2023 Welding Quiz - 1 Welding Quiz - 1 1 / 10 When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention. What would you investigate? Electrode type Power plant type Electrode stroage Day temperature 2 / 10 In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the: Leg Length Throat thickness Weld width Actual throat thickness 3 / 10 Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of: Scattered porosity Worm hole porosity Parent metal cracking Lack of penetration 4 / 10 One of the following alloys is non-magnetic. which one? 4.0% chromium molybdenum 12.0% chromium Austentic stainless steel 9.0% nickel steel 5 / 10 When TIG welding austentic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for: Prevent oxidation Prevent underbead cracking Prevent porosity Control the penetration bead shape 6 / 10 When 'hydrogen control' is specified for a maual metal arc welding project the electrode would normally be: Cellulose Iron Oxide Acid Basic 7 / 10 You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You would object because: It is too expensive The wire would be too thick The metal composition may be wrong The wire is too short 8 / 10 The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6% manganese, to 0.2% carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of: Porosity Cracking in the weld area Undercut for fillet welds Lack of fusion defects 9 / 10 You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its: Colour Length Trade Name BS639/AWS code letter 10 / 10 When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which group of welders are most likely to require continuous monitoring: Concrete shuttering welding teams Pipe welding teams Plate welders Plant maintenance welders Your score is The average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 313 Created on September 28, 2022 Radiography Quiz - 2 QUIZ-2 1 / 10 The atomic number of an element is the number of electrons in the atom the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom the total number of proton and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom the number of neutrons in an atom 2 / 10 The energy of gamma rays from iridium 192 is equal to cesium 137 gamma energy greater than cobalt 60 gamma ray less than cobalt 60 gamma energy none of the above 3 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called pair production ionization biological damage none of the above 4 / 10 Isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number electron number none of the above 5 / 10 Depleted uranium is used in some radiography cameras because it is a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 6 / 10 The project area of the target of an X ray tube is called focal spot focus effective focal spot Geometric unsharpness 7 / 10 Co-59 becomes Co-60 , when it is placed in a nuclear reactor , where it captures electrons protons neutrons Atoms 8 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 9 / 10 The half life of a radioactive source is one half of the total life of the source the period in which the energy of the source becomes half the period in which the activity of the source becomes half none of the above 10 / 10 The unit of activity is sievert Becquerel Gray none of the above Your score is The average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 265 Created on September 14, 2022 Radiography Quiz QUIZ-1 1 / 10 the curies per gram for a gamma ray source is called as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 2 / 10 the emission of alpha radiation from a radioisotope leads to a daughter product with change in mass number change in atomic number change in atomic and mass number none of the above 3 / 10 a radioisotope and stable isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number chemical property none of the above 4 / 10 The radiation quality of a gamma ray source is Determined by the size of the focal spot Determined by the curie of the source Determined by the type of isotope involved Can be verified by the operator 5 / 10 The concentration of the radioactive material in a gamma source is referred to as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 6 / 10 A radioisotope which undergoes 3.7 x 1012 disintegration per second will have an activity of 3.7 Ci 100 Ci 10milli Ci 370 Ci 7 / 10 to radiograph a 175 mm thick steel plate , which of the following gamma ray sources would be used. cobalt-60 thulium – 170 Iridium -192 cesium – 137 8 / 10 radioactivity of 1 Bq corresponds to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second 1 x 1010 disintegrations per second 3.7 x 1004 disintegrations per second none of the above 9 / 10 1 Curie is equivalent of 001 milli Ci 1000 milli Ci 100 Mega Ci .000001 micro Ci 10 / 10 the energy of gamma and x ray is expressed by which of the following units of measurement curie roentgen half life kilo electron volt or million electron volt Your score is The average score is 52% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 2129 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A water spray A hydrophilic scrubber A solvent spray 2 / 10 How is the size of a liquid penetrant indication usually related to the discontinuity itrepresents: Smaller than Larger than Not related to Equal to 3 / 10 Liquid penetrant testing is based on the principle of: Absorption of X rays Capillary action Magnetic domains Polarized sound waves in a liquid 4 / 10 Correct developer coating thickness is indicated by: An even, snowy white appearance A thin, translucent layer A slightly pinkish background A fine, misting spray 5 / 10 Which penetrant process is best suited to detect shallow discontinuities? Post emulsifiable Solvent removable Water washable Fluorescent 6 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Dwell time Fixing time Soaking time Development time 7 / 10 The penetrant process best suited to use on parts with rough surfaces is: Magnetic particle Water washable Solvent removable Post emulsifiable 8 / 10 Penetrant testing is limited by its inability to test which of the following materials: Aluminium Moulded rubber Ceramics Porous materials 9 / 10 Penetrants may be applied to the surface of part by : Spraying All of the above methods are acceptable Dipping Pouring 10 / 10 The act of determining the cause of an indication is called Inspection Interpretation Determination Evaluation Your score is The average score is 64% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 1225 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 What is the likely result of incomplete removal of all excess penetrant from the test piece surface? Formation of relevant indications None of the above Exaggeration of the size of relevant indications Formation of false indications 2 / 10 Which of the following penetrants contains an emulsifying agent? Post emulsifiable Solvent removable Water washable Fluorescent 3 / 10 What type of solvent removers may be used with a solvent removable penetrant? Only the cleaner recommended by the manufacturer of the penetrant Only chlorinated hydrocarbons Any organic solvent Any alcohol based solvents 4 / 10 A hydrometer is used to measure: Specific gravity of water based wet developers Penetrant specific gravity Penetrant viscosity Cleaner specific gravity 5 / 10 For adequate test results, the black light used in fluorescent penetrant examination should provide what minimum black light intensity at the test surface? 1000 microwatts per square centimetre 100 foot candles per square centimetre 35 microwatts per square centimeter 800 foot candles 6 / 10 What is the preferred pre-cleaning process for removal of oil and grease : Ultrasonic cleaning Vapour degreasing Steam cleaning Steam cleaning with a added acid 7 / 10 Which of the following types of pre-cleaning processes may be used for liquid penetrant testing? Detergent and water only Vapour degreasing only Wire brushing only Any process that leaves the part clean and dry, does not harm the part and is compatible with the penetrant materials 8 / 10 What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a mercury Vapour arc black light? 2 minutes None 5 minutes 10 minutes 9 / 10 Which of the following is a prerequisite for a penetrant test? Any surface coatings or soils must be completely removed All traces of penetrant materials should be removed after testing is complete Developer must be applied in a thin, even coat The test object must be non-magnetic 10 / 10 Visible, solvent removable penetrants are most advantageous for: Inspecting batches of small parts Inspecting parts with porous surfaces Inspecting parts at remote locations Inspecting parts with rough surfaces Your score is The average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 964 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-3 1 / 10 The most sensitive type of developer for the detection of fine discontinuities is: Water soluble Non-aqueous wet Dry Water Suspendable 2 / 10 Excess penetrant removal is a two step process with which of the following penetrant methods? Post emulsifiable Water washable Liquid oxygen applications Solvent removable 3 / 10 A developer aids penetrant bleed out because of: Proper emulsifier action Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Adequate removal of the excess penetrant Capillary action 4 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Dwell time Fixing time Development time Soaking time 5 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: A solvent spray Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A hydrophilic scrubber A water spray 6 / 10 Which of the following developers is applied before the drying operation? Dry Water based wet Non-aqueous wet None of the above 7 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Dissolve organic soils on the test piece surface Penetrating into discontinuities open to the surface Making the penetrant water washable 8 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer? All of the above Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Provides capillary paths to aid the bleed out process Accentuates presence of discontinuities by causing a penetrant indication to spread out over a larger area 9 / 10 Water based wet developer is applied: Immediately after removal of excess penetrant For maximum sensitivity results Immediately before removal of excess penetrant After a drying period following removal of excess penetrant 10 / 10 Which of the following is the most sensitive developer in descending order? Dry, water soluble, water suspendable Non-aqueous wet, water soluble, water suspendable ,dry Non-aqueous wet, dry, water soluble Water suspendable, water soluble, non-aqueous wet Your score is The average score is 69% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 959 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 Why are magnetic particles available in different colors ? Both a and b Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values. For color contrast with the part surface To enhance the detection of indications 2 / 10 If a crack exists in a circular magnet , the attraction of magnetic particles to the crack is caused by : Leakage field Doppler effect Coercive force High reluctance at the crack 3 / 10 The retentivity of a material describes the : Ease with which it can be magnetized Length of time required to demagnetize it Depth of magnetic field in the part Ability to retain the magnetic field 4 / 10 Which statement is true when related to magnetic lines of force ? All of the above They never cross They seek the path of least resistance They are most dense at the poles of a magnet 5 / 10 The magnetic field is strongest when the : Magnetizing current is not flowing Magnetizing current is flowing Magnetizing voltage is flowing Materials exhibits high coercive forces 6 / 10 Ferromagnetic material is : Strongly attracted by a magnet Capable of being magnetized Both a and b Not capable of being magnetized 7 / 10 The permeability of a material describes the : Length of time required to demagnetize it Depth of magnetic field in the part Ability to retain the magnetic field Ease with which it can be magnetized 8 / 10 Magnetic particle is a nondestructive examination method used for : Locating near surface discontinuities Both a and b Detecting material separation Locating surface discontinuities 9 / 10 The unit usually used to denote flux density is the : Henry Gauss Farad Ampere 10 / 10 Which of the following can be magnetized ? All of the above Iron Nickel Cobalt Your score is The average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 764 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 The proper number of ampere turns for a given test specimen is determined by : Both a and b Its length Its diameter The material 2 / 10 What rule describes the direction of current flow when lines of magnetic force surround a conductor? The right hand thumb rule The reluctance rule The flux rule The left hand thump rule 3 / 10 The magnitude of the residual magnetic field in a specimen is dependent on the : Strength of the applied magnetic force Right hand rule L/D ratio Left hand rule 4 / 10 A circular filed may be induced into a specimen by : Direct induction (head shot) Direct induction (prods) Central conductor All of the above 5 / 10 An electrical yoke produces : A circular field Alternating fields A swinging filed A longitudinal field 6 / 10 A coil around the part produces : A circular field Either a or b depending on the type of current applied An intermittent field A longitudinal field 7 / 10 In longitudinal magnetization the proper term for calculating magnetizing force is : Ohms Watts Amperes Ampere turns 8 / 10 A part is adaptable to magnetic particle inspection if : The material is ferromagnetic The material is non ferrous It is attached to an electro static field The materials is an electric conductor 9 / 10 Magnetic lines of force : Travel in straight lines Form a closed loop Overlay in highly ferromagnetic materials Are randomly oriented 10 / 10 Magnetic flux lines which are parallel to a discontinuity produce : Weak indications No indications Fuzzy indications Strong indications Your score is The average score is 67% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz