Quizzes 0% 172 Created on April 08, 2023 Welding Quiz - 1 Welding Quiz - 1 1 / 10 You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its: Colour Length Trade Name BS639/AWS code letter 2 / 10 The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6% manganese, to 0.2% carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of: Porosity Cracking in the weld area Undercut for fillet welds Lack of fusion defects 3 / 10 When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which group of welders are most likely to require continuous monitoring: Concrete shuttering welding teams Pipe welding teams Plate welders Plant maintenance welders 4 / 10 When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention. What would you investigate? Electrode type Power plant type Electrode stroage Day temperature 5 / 10 You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You would object because: It is too expensive The wire would be too thick The metal composition may be wrong The wire is too short 6 / 10 In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the: Leg Length Throat thickness Weld width Actual throat thickness 7 / 10 One of the following alloys is non-magnetic. which one? 4.0% chromium molybdenum 12.0% chromium Austentic stainless steel 9.0% nickel steel 8 / 10 When TIG welding austentic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for: Prevent oxidation Prevent underbead cracking Prevent porosity Control the penetration bead shape 9 / 10 When 'hydrogen control' is specified for a maual metal arc welding project the electrode would normally be: Cellulose Iron Oxide Acid Basic 10 / 10 Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of: Scattered porosity Worm hole porosity Parent metal cracking Lack of penetration Your score isThe average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 313 Created on September 28, 2022 Radiography Quiz - 2 QUIZ-2 1 / 10 The half life of a radioactive source is one half of the total life of the source the period in which the energy of the source becomes half the period in which the activity of the source becomes half none of the above 2 / 10 The project area of the target of an X ray tube is called focal spot focus effective focal spot Geometric unsharpness 3 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called pair production ionization biological damage none of the above 4 / 10 Depleted uranium is used in some radiography cameras because it is a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 5 / 10 The energy of gamma rays from iridium 192 is equal to cesium 137 gamma energy greater than cobalt 60 gamma ray less than cobalt 60 gamma energy none of the above 6 / 10 Isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number electron number none of the above 7 / 10 The atomic number of an element is the number of electrons in the atom the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom the total number of proton and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom the number of neutrons in an atom 8 / 10 Co-59 becomes Co-60 , when it is placed in a nuclear reactor , where it captures electrons protons neutrons Atoms 9 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 10 / 10 The unit of activity is sievert Becquerel Gray none of the above Your score isThe average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 265 Created on September 14, 2022 Radiography Quiz QUIZ-1 1 / 10 radioactivity of 1 Bq corresponds to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second 1 x 1010 disintegrations per second 3.7 x 1004 disintegrations per second none of the above 2 / 10 The concentration of the radioactive material in a gamma source is referred to as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 3 / 10 a radioisotope and stable isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number chemical property none of the above 4 / 10 The radiation quality of a gamma ray source is Determined by the size of the focal spot Determined by the curie of the source Determined by the type of isotope involved Can be verified by the operator 5 / 10 the energy of gamma and x ray is expressed by which of the following units of measurement curie roentgen half life kilo electron volt or million electron volt 6 / 10 the curies per gram for a gamma ray source is called as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 7 / 10 the emission of alpha radiation from a radioisotope leads to a daughter product with change in mass number change in atomic number change in atomic and mass number none of the above 8 / 10 1 Curie is equivalent of 001 milli Ci 1000 milli Ci 100 Mega Ci .000001 micro Ci 9 / 10 A radioisotope which undergoes 3.7 x 1012 disintegration per second will have an activity of 3.7 Ci 100 Ci 10milli Ci 370 Ci 10 / 10 to radiograph a 175 mm thick steel plate , which of the following gamma ray sources would be used. cobalt-60 thulium – 170 Iridium -192 cesium – 137 Your score isThe average score is 52% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 2131 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 Correct developer coating thickness is indicated by: An even, snowy white appearance A fine, misting spray A thin, translucent layer A slightly pinkish background 2 / 10 The act of determining the cause of an indication is called Determination Interpretation Evaluation Inspection 3 / 10 Penetrant testing is limited by its inability to test which of the following materials: Ceramics Porous materials Moulded rubber Aluminium 4 / 10 How is the size of a liquid penetrant indication usually related to the discontinuity itrepresents: Equal to Not related to Larger than Smaller than 5 / 10 Which penetrant process is best suited to detect shallow discontinuities? Post emulsifiable Solvent removable Fluorescent Water washable 6 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Fixing time Dwell time Soaking time Development time 7 / 10 Liquid penetrant testing is based on the principle of: Polarized sound waves in a liquid Absorption of X rays Magnetic domains Capillary action 8 / 10 Penetrants may be applied to the surface of part by : Spraying Pouring All of the above methods are acceptable Dipping 9 / 10 The penetrant process best suited to use on parts with rough surfaces is: Post emulsifiable Magnetic particle Water washable Solvent removable 10 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: A hydrophilic scrubber A water spray Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A solvent spray Your score isThe average score is 64% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 1225 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 A hydrometer is used to measure: Penetrant specific gravity Specific gravity of water based wet developers Cleaner specific gravity Penetrant viscosity 2 / 10 Which of the following is a prerequisite for a penetrant test? Any surface coatings or soils must be completely removed The test object must be non-magnetic All traces of penetrant materials should be removed after testing is complete Developer must be applied in a thin, even coat 3 / 10 What is the preferred pre-cleaning process for removal of oil and grease : Steam cleaning with a added acid Steam cleaning Vapour degreasing Ultrasonic cleaning 4 / 10 What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a mercury Vapour arc black light? None 5 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes 5 / 10 What is the likely result of incomplete removal of all excess penetrant from the test piece surface? Formation of false indications Formation of relevant indications Exaggeration of the size of relevant indications None of the above 6 / 10 Visible, solvent removable penetrants are most advantageous for: Inspecting parts with rough surfaces Inspecting parts at remote locations Inspecting batches of small parts Inspecting parts with porous surfaces 7 / 10 For adequate test results, the black light used in fluorescent penetrant examination should provide what minimum black light intensity at the test surface? 35 microwatts per square centimeter 100 foot candles per square centimetre 1000 microwatts per square centimetre 800 foot candles 8 / 10 Which of the following penetrants contains an emulsifying agent? Water washable Post emulsifiable Fluorescent Solvent removable 9 / 10 Which of the following types of pre-cleaning processes may be used for liquid penetrant testing? Any process that leaves the part clean and dry, does not harm the part and is compatible with the penetrant materials Detergent and water only Wire brushing only Vapour degreasing only 10 / 10 What type of solvent removers may be used with a solvent removable penetrant? Only the cleaner recommended by the manufacturer of the penetrant Only chlorinated hydrocarbons Any organic solvent Any alcohol based solvents Your score isThe average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 964 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-3 1 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer? Accentuates presence of discontinuities by causing a penetrant indication to spread out over a larger area Provides capillary paths to aid the bleed out process All of the above Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications 2 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Development time Dwell time Soaking time Fixing time 3 / 10 A developer aids penetrant bleed out because of: Proper emulsifier action Capillary action Adequate removal of the excess penetrant Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications 4 / 10 Which of the following developers is applied before the drying operation? Dry None of the above Non-aqueous wet Water based wet 5 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer Making the penetrant water washable Penetrating into discontinuities open to the surface Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Dissolve organic soils on the test piece surface 6 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: A water spray A hydrophilic scrubber Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A solvent spray 7 / 10 Water based wet developer is applied: For maximum sensitivity results Immediately before removal of excess penetrant After a drying period following removal of excess penetrant Immediately after removal of excess penetrant 8 / 10 Which of the following is the most sensitive developer in descending order? Non-aqueous wet, water soluble, water suspendable ,dry Non-aqueous wet, dry, water soluble Water suspendable, water soluble, non-aqueous wet Dry, water soluble, water suspendable 9 / 10 Excess penetrant removal is a two step process with which of the following penetrant methods? Liquid oxygen applications Water washable Solvent removable Post emulsifiable 10 / 10 The most sensitive type of developer for the detection of fine discontinuities is: Dry Non-aqueous wet Water Suspendable Water soluble Your score isThe average score is 69% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 959 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 The permeability of a material describes the : Length of time required to demagnetize it Ease with which it can be magnetized Depth of magnetic field in the part Ability to retain the magnetic field 2 / 10 If a crack exists in a circular magnet , the attraction of magnetic particles to the crack is caused by : Doppler effect High reluctance at the crack Coercive force Leakage field 3 / 10 Magnetic particle is a nondestructive examination method used for : Locating surface discontinuities Detecting material separation Both a and b Locating near surface discontinuities 4 / 10 Ferromagnetic material is : Both a and b Capable of being magnetized Strongly attracted by a magnet Not capable of being magnetized 5 / 10 Why are magnetic particles available in different colors ? For color contrast with the part surface Both a and b To enhance the detection of indications Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values. 6 / 10 The magnetic field is strongest when the : Magnetizing voltage is flowing Magnetizing current is flowing Magnetizing current is not flowing Materials exhibits high coercive forces 7 / 10 Which statement is true when related to magnetic lines of force ? They are most dense at the poles of a magnet All of the above They seek the path of least resistance They never cross 8 / 10 Which of the following can be magnetized ? All of the above Nickel Iron Cobalt 9 / 10 The retentivity of a material describes the : Depth of magnetic field in the part Length of time required to demagnetize it Ability to retain the magnetic field Ease with which it can be magnetized 10 / 10 The unit usually used to denote flux density is the : Henry Gauss Ampere Farad Your score isThe average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 764 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 Magnetic lines of force : Travel in straight lines Overlay in highly ferromagnetic materials Are randomly oriented Form a closed loop 2 / 10 An electrical yoke produces : A longitudinal field Alternating fields A swinging filed A circular field 3 / 10 A coil around the part produces : A circular field Either a or b depending on the type of current applied An intermittent field A longitudinal field 4 / 10 A part is adaptable to magnetic particle inspection if : The material is non ferrous The materials is an electric conductor It is attached to an electro static field The material is ferromagnetic 5 / 10 The magnitude of the residual magnetic field in a specimen is dependent on the : L/D ratio Right hand rule Left hand rule Strength of the applied magnetic force 6 / 10 Magnetic flux lines which are parallel to a discontinuity produce : No indications Weak indications Strong indications Fuzzy indications 7 / 10 The proper number of ampere turns for a given test specimen is determined by : The material Both a and b Its length Its diameter 8 / 10 In longitudinal magnetization the proper term for calculating magnetizing force is : Watts Ohms Ampere turns Amperes 9 / 10 What rule describes the direction of current flow when lines of magnetic force surround a conductor? The right hand thumb rule The left hand thump rule The flux rule The reluctance rule 10 / 10 A circular filed may be induced into a specimen by : Central conductor All of the above Direct induction (prods) Direct induction (head shot) Your score isThe average score is 67% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
