Quizzes 0% 172 Created on April 08, 2023 Welding Quiz - 1 Welding Quiz - 1 1 / 10 When 'hydrogen control' is specified for a maual metal arc welding project the electrode would normally be: Cellulose Iron Oxide Acid Basic 2 / 10 Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of: Scattered porosity Worm hole porosity Parent metal cracking Lack of penetration 3 / 10 You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its: Colour Length Trade Name BS639/AWS code letter 4 / 10 When TIG welding austentic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for: Prevent oxidation Prevent underbead cracking Prevent porosity Control the penetration bead shape 5 / 10 In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the: Leg Length Throat thickness Weld width Actual throat thickness 6 / 10 When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention. What would you investigate? Electrode type Power plant type Electrode stroage Day temperature 7 / 10 One of the following alloys is non-magnetic. which one? 4.0% chromium molybdenum 12.0% chromium Austentic stainless steel 9.0% nickel steel 8 / 10 When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which group of welders are most likely to require continuous monitoring: Concrete shuttering welding teams Pipe welding teams Plate welders Plant maintenance welders 9 / 10 You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You would object because: It is too expensive The wire would be too thick The metal composition may be wrong The wire is too short 10 / 10 The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6% manganese, to 0.2% carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of: Porosity Cracking in the weld area Undercut for fillet welds Lack of fusion defects Your score isThe average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 313 Created on September 28, 2022 Radiography Quiz - 2 QUIZ-2 1 / 10 The energy of gamma rays from iridium 192 is equal to cesium 137 gamma energy greater than cobalt 60 gamma ray less than cobalt 60 gamma energy none of the above 2 / 10 The unit of activity is sievert Becquerel Gray none of the above 3 / 10 The half life of a radioactive source is one half of the total life of the source the period in which the energy of the source becomes half the period in which the activity of the source becomes half none of the above 4 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called pair production ionization biological damage none of the above 5 / 10 When radiation removes an electron from an atom , the process is called a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 6 / 10 The project area of the target of an X ray tube is called focal spot focus effective focal spot Geometric unsharpness 7 / 10 The atomic number of an element is the number of electrons in the atom the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom the total number of proton and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom the number of neutrons in an atom 8 / 10 Co-59 becomes Co-60 , when it is placed in a nuclear reactor , where it captures electrons protons neutrons Atoms 9 / 10 Depleted uranium is used in some radiography cameras because it is a good shielding material a low density material and so light cheap and easily available none of the above 10 / 10 Isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number electron number none of the above Your score isThe average score is 53% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 265 Created on September 14, 2022 Radiography Quiz QUIZ-1 1 / 10 the emission of alpha radiation from a radioisotope leads to a daughter product with change in mass number change in atomic number change in atomic and mass number none of the above 2 / 10 to radiograph a 175 mm thick steel plate , which of the following gamma ray sources would be used. cobalt-60 thulium – 170 Iridium -192 cesium – 137 3 / 10 the energy of gamma and x ray is expressed by which of the following units of measurement curie roentgen half life kilo electron volt or million electron volt 4 / 10 the curies per gram for a gamma ray source is called as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 5 / 10 A radioisotope which undergoes 3.7 x 1012 disintegration per second will have an activity of 3.7 Ci 100 Ci 10milli Ci 370 Ci 6 / 10 The radiation quality of a gamma ray source is Determined by the size of the focal spot Determined by the curie of the source Determined by the type of isotope involved Can be verified by the operator 7 / 10 The concentration of the radioactive material in a gamma source is referred to as the specific activity of the source the quality of the source the atomic weight of the source the half life of the source 8 / 10 a radioisotope and stable isotope of an element differ in their mass number atomic number chemical property none of the above 9 / 10 radioactivity of 1 Bq corresponds to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second 1 x 1010 disintegrations per second 3.7 x 1004 disintegrations per second none of the above 10 / 10 1 Curie is equivalent of 001 milli Ci 1000 milli Ci 100 Mega Ci .000001 micro Ci Your score isThe average score is 52% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 2130 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 Penetrant testing is limited by its inability to test which of the following materials: Aluminium Ceramics Moulded rubber Porous materials 2 / 10 The penetrant process best suited to use on parts with rough surfaces is: Solvent removable Magnetic particle Water washable Post emulsifiable 3 / 10 Which penetrant process is best suited to detect shallow discontinuities? Fluorescent Post emulsifiable Solvent removable Water washable 4 / 10 Liquid penetrant testing is based on the principle of: Polarized sound waves in a liquid Capillary action Absorption of X rays Magnetic domains 5 / 10 How is the size of a liquid penetrant indication usually related to the discontinuity itrepresents: Equal to Larger than Not related to Smaller than 6 / 10 Correct developer coating thickness is indicated by: A fine, misting spray A thin, translucent layer A slightly pinkish background An even, snowy white appearance 7 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Soaking time Fixing time Development time Dwell time 8 / 10 Penetrants may be applied to the surface of part by : Spraying Dipping Pouring All of the above methods are acceptable 9 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A water spray A solvent spray A hydrophilic scrubber 10 / 10 The act of determining the cause of an indication is called Inspection Interpretation Determination Evaluation Your score isThe average score is 64% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 1225 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a mercury Vapour arc black light? 2 minutes None 10 minutes 5 minutes 2 / 10 Which of the following is a prerequisite for a penetrant test? All traces of penetrant materials should be removed after testing is complete The test object must be non-magnetic Any surface coatings or soils must be completely removed Developer must be applied in a thin, even coat 3 / 10 Which of the following types of pre-cleaning processes may be used for liquid penetrant testing? Vapour degreasing only Wire brushing only Any process that leaves the part clean and dry, does not harm the part and is compatible with the penetrant materials Detergent and water only 4 / 10 Visible, solvent removable penetrants are most advantageous for: Inspecting parts with porous surfaces Inspecting batches of small parts Inspecting parts at remote locations Inspecting parts with rough surfaces 5 / 10 A hydrometer is used to measure: Specific gravity of water based wet developers Cleaner specific gravity Penetrant specific gravity Penetrant viscosity 6 / 10 Which of the following penetrants contains an emulsifying agent? Post emulsifiable Solvent removable Fluorescent Water washable 7 / 10 For adequate test results, the black light used in fluorescent penetrant examination should provide what minimum black light intensity at the test surface? 1000 microwatts per square centimetre 35 microwatts per square centimeter 800 foot candles 100 foot candles per square centimetre 8 / 10 What type of solvent removers may be used with a solvent removable penetrant? Only chlorinated hydrocarbons Only the cleaner recommended by the manufacturer of the penetrant Any alcohol based solvents Any organic solvent 9 / 10 What is the preferred pre-cleaning process for removal of oil and grease : Steam cleaning Steam cleaning with a added acid Vapour degreasing Ultrasonic cleaning 10 / 10 What is the likely result of incomplete removal of all excess penetrant from the test piece surface? Formation of relevant indications None of the above Exaggeration of the size of relevant indications Formation of false indications Your score isThe average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 964 Created on June 04, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Liquid Penetrant Testing Quiz-3 1 / 10 Water based wet developer is applied: After a drying period following removal of excess penetrant Immediately after removal of excess penetrant Immediately before removal of excess penetrant For maximum sensitivity results 2 / 10 Which of the following developers is applied before the drying operation? Water based wet Non-aqueous wet Dry None of the above 3 / 10 Excess penetrant removal is a two step process with which of the following penetrant methods? Liquid oxygen applications Water washable Post emulsifiable Solvent removable 4 / 10 A developer aids penetrant bleed out because of: Capillary action Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Adequate removal of the excess penetrant Proper emulsifier action 5 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications Dissolve organic soils on the test piece surface Making the penetrant water washable Penetrating into discontinuities open to the surface 6 / 10 In the solvent removable penetrant process, excess penetrant is removed with: A water spray A hydrophilic scrubber Clean, lint free towels slightly moistened with solvent A solvent spray 7 / 10 Which of the following is the most sensitive developer in descending order? Non-aqueous wet, water soluble, water suspendable ,dry Dry, water soluble, water suspendable Non-aqueous wet, dry, water soluble Water suspendable, water soluble, non-aqueous wet 8 / 10 Which of the following is a function of a developer? All of the above Provides capillary paths to aid the bleed out process Accentuates presence of discontinuities by causing a penetrant indication to spread out over a larger area Providing a contrasting background for visible dye indications 9 / 10 The most sensitive type of developer for the detection of fine discontinuities is: Water Suspendable Dry Non-aqueous wet Water soluble 10 / 10 The time period during which penetrant remains on the surface of the test piece is called: Soaking time Dwell time Fixing time Development time Your score isThe average score is 69% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 959 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-1 1 / 10 The permeability of a material describes the : Depth of magnetic field in the part Length of time required to demagnetize it Ease with which it can be magnetized Ability to retain the magnetic field 2 / 10 The magnetic field is strongest when the : Magnetizing current is not flowing Magnetizing voltage is flowing Materials exhibits high coercive forces Magnetizing current is flowing 3 / 10 Ferromagnetic material is : Not capable of being magnetized Strongly attracted by a magnet Capable of being magnetized Both a and b 4 / 10 Which statement is true when related to magnetic lines of force ? They never cross They seek the path of least resistance They are most dense at the poles of a magnet All of the above 5 / 10 Why are magnetic particles available in different colors ? Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values. Both a and b For color contrast with the part surface To enhance the detection of indications 6 / 10 If a crack exists in a circular magnet , the attraction of magnetic particles to the crack is caused by : Coercive force Doppler effect High reluctance at the crack Leakage field 7 / 10 The unit usually used to denote flux density is the : Gauss Ampere Farad Henry 8 / 10 The retentivity of a material describes the : Length of time required to demagnetize it Depth of magnetic field in the part Ease with which it can be magnetized Ability to retain the magnetic field 9 / 10 Magnetic particle is a nondestructive examination method used for : Detecting material separation Locating surface discontinuities Both a and b Locating near surface discontinuities 10 / 10 Which of the following can be magnetized ? Nickel Iron Cobalt All of the above Your score isThe average score is 68% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 0% 764 Created on July 08, 2021Liquid Penetrant Testing Magnetic Particle Testing Quiz-2 1 / 10 A part is adaptable to magnetic particle inspection if : It is attached to an electro static field The material is non ferrous The materials is an electric conductor The material is ferromagnetic 2 / 10 A coil around the part produces : A longitudinal field Either a or b depending on the type of current applied A circular field An intermittent field 3 / 10 The proper number of ampere turns for a given test specimen is determined by : The material Its diameter Both a and b Its length 4 / 10 A circular filed may be induced into a specimen by : All of the above Direct induction (prods) Direct induction (head shot) Central conductor 5 / 10 What rule describes the direction of current flow when lines of magnetic force surround a conductor? The left hand thump rule The right hand thumb rule The reluctance rule The flux rule 6 / 10 In longitudinal magnetization the proper term for calculating magnetizing force is : Ampere turns Watts Amperes Ohms 7 / 10 The magnitude of the residual magnetic field in a specimen is dependent on the : L/D ratio Left hand rule Strength of the applied magnetic force Right hand rule 8 / 10 Magnetic flux lines which are parallel to a discontinuity produce : Fuzzy indications Strong indications Weak indications No indications 9 / 10 Magnetic lines of force : Overlay in highly ferromagnetic materials Are randomly oriented Form a closed loop Travel in straight lines 10 / 10 An electrical yoke produces : A swinging filed Alternating fields A longitudinal field A circular field Your score isThe average score is 67% LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
